سؤال مهم ارجو الاجابه مع التفسير

[elsaa3]

ممكن الرد
A week ago ,Mona sold her gold necklace. she ........ it ever since she got married
(has - has had - had - had ) مع التفسير

[Magdy1052]

has had وذلك لوجود ever since وهى تدل على المضارع التام

[Mr. Nasser Said]

has had" ...................because there is ........."since "..........in the sentence"

[محمد ابو عبد الرحمن شكر]

الاجابه الاصح ان شاء الله had had
لان الحدث توقف بمجرد بيع العقد الاسبوع الماضى فلن يصح استخدام المضارع التام فى هذه الحال لانه اذا استخدمنا المضارع التام انها ما زالت تمتلك العقد على الرغم من انها باعته الاسبوع الماضى وااله اعلم

[HOSSAM ABDULBAKI]

Answer is :had had
It came first , so it is past perfect

[محمود احمد محمد]

had had 'cause the first is past simple

[ahmed ali22]

since is a key word for the present perfect tense as for the past perfect tense. so the answer is had had

[Nabil kamal Iskander]

has had is the right answer

[bosy beso]

has had لوجود since

[SA3EEDY]

المشاركة الأصلية كتبت بواسطة elsaa3

ممكن الرد
A week ago ,Mona sold her gold necklace. she ........ it ever since she got married
(has - has had - had - had ) مع التفسير

the answer is had had because if we say has had that means she still has her
gold necklace but this is not true because she had had it before she sold it
notice: we can use since with both present and past perfect
والله تعالى اعلى واعلم

[القائدالمحنك]

has had لوجود Since

[Mr.3aneed]

had had
1-لوجود فعلين في الماضي البسيط
2- لانها امتلكته ( الحدث الاقدم ) ثم باعته ( الحدث يلي الامتلاك
3- لماذا يجب ان تكون since علامة للمضارع التام فقط؟ اليس من الممكن استخدامها مع الماضي التام كما تستخدم مع المضارع التام والمضارع التام المستمر؟