تم تجميع بعض اسئله الاعضاء تحت عنوان ارجو الرد على هذا السؤال بسرعه

[جواد عوض]

According to Dictionary.com:

"As an adjective or pronoun meaning “not either,” neither is usually followed by a singular verb and referred to by a singular personal pronoun: Neither lawyer prepares her own briefs. Neither performs his duties for reward. When neither is followed by a prepositional phrase with a plural object, there has been, ever since the 17th century, a tendency, especially in speech and less formal writing, to use a plural verb and personal pronoun: Neither of the guards were at their stations. In edited writing, however, singular verbs and pronouns are more common in such constructions: Neither of the guards was at his station."

So in your example, since you do use the prepositional phrase "...of them (pl)...", "has" would be the preferred, more formal usage, but "have" would be an acceptable, if less formal, alternative.
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I had wondered the same thing about the usage of the word "none". Is it "none is" or "none are"? Turns out that when "none" is used in the sense of "none of several" (as opposed to "none of a commodity", when it is always treated as singular), then the plural usage sounds more natural and is therefore preferred. So one would say "Although many were pretty, none were beautiful".